SouthwestMike wrote:1. Romell, is it your position that the ancient Hebrews never stoned gay people to death nor persecuted gay people in any way? And that none of the Old Testament writers said anything bad about gay people?
No. I do, without a doubt, believe that the proscriptions against male-male sex were universally enforced, whether idolatry was involved or not. However, the text itself shows us
why it was proscribed, and that reason was because of its association with the idolatrous cultures of Egypt and Canaan.
So yes, the OT writers
did have something bad to say about same-sex activity, not because the activity was itself immoral (just like pigs, shellfish, rabbit, etc., which were also forbidden, are not themselves immoral), but because of its socio-religious connection with idolatrous cultures.
SouthwestMike wrote:2. Romell, is it your position that Apostolic / Early / original Christianity was in no way excluding of gay people?
No, that is not my position. I believe without a doubt that the intent of Romans 1 was to condemn
all same-sex sexual activity. The question becomes:
Why?
Now, some people believe that why is irrelevant. God knows I used to be one of them. However, I came to understand that it's
very relevant, and that the Church itself considers the why on multiple occasions, when it comes to how and if they apply even new testament commands and/or proscriptions.
For example, Paul condemned men with long hair, and indicated that women
should have long hair. Churches that no longer enforce that do so because of the
why. Paul said that women should not so much as ask a question in corporate gatherings. Not a peep from them. Yet, churches today allow women to preach; and even the ones that don't allow it, they allow them to ask questions in Bible class, which directly contradicts NT Scripture. They allow this because of the
why.
So, while I believe the condemnation of same-sex sexual activity was universal in its contemporaneous application, we must consider
why the command was given in the first place. The text actually shows us that the acts were condemned in direct relation to idolatrous worship. You need not turn to the next chapter, or the previous chapter to see it. It's right there in the self-same context.
So, now that those acts are no longer associated culturally or religiously with idolatry (the stigma is obsolete), so too is the condemnation itself. Just like women praying with their head uncovered once symbolized disrespect for patriarchal authority, yet is now an obsolete symbolism, so too is the socio-religious connection between same-sex sexual activity and idolatry. The
why renders the condemnation in Romans 1 obsolete in modern day.
SouthwestMike wrote:And that whoever wrote those verses in Corinthians and Timothy (do you believe Paul wrote both letters?) really didn't mean to disparage gay people?
Yes, I believe that Paul wrote both epistles. And no, I don't believe that the verses were written in disparagement of gay people. If I preached a sermon condemning dirty old men who sexually exploit young girls, would I be disparaging heterosexuals?
After doing some significant study into the language of those passages, I am 100% certain that the actual words are incorrectly translated in many of our modern Bibles. Goodness, just take 5 translations and put them side by side. You see for yourself that these so-called scholars and linguists didn't know what the heck the words meant. However, after a substantial amount of research, I'm 100% certain that those two passages are
not referring to homosexuality, but rather, to pederastic prostitution. Older men took young male prostitutes as their sexual slaves. This happened quite a bit in the Greco-Roman world. That's what Paul was condemning in BOTH passages. And in one of the passages, all three players are condemned (the young boy prostitute, the older male customer, and the slave-trader--"pimp" who profited off of the arrangement).
This is explained in detail in the book,
Homosexianity. But, suffice it to say that while the acts involved same-sex sexual activity, what was being condemned was
not the same-sex element. What was being condemned was the exploitative practice of pederastic prostitution.
SouthwestMike wrote:I guess I always assumed that premodern people of faith, with no science and with no psychology, simply persecuted gay people out of ignorance, and a few stray gay-bashing verses made their way into the Bible.
Well, if you don't hold to the belief of the divine inspiration of "ALL" Scripture, according to
2Ti. 3:16, I can see such a conclusion being formed (although there really is no proof that that is the case). Because I believe that ALL Scripture has God as its ultimate originator, I cannot hold to that view, and therefore, cannot dismiss the verses that seem to "gay-bash".
SouthwestMike wrote:3. Romell, what is your position on how women are regarded in the Bible as a whole, and by Christ in particular? Do you personally believe that women should be pastors?
Interesting question. If you would have asked me this a year ago, my answer would have been substantially different. However, having come through this study, and having realigned my approach to Scripture in accordance with how I believe the Scriptures themselves witness to us regarding how we are to interpret and apply it, my beliefs have changed substantially. A year ago I would have said that in Christ, there is neither male nor female; yet in this world, there are still two sexes, and there are still proper and appropriate roles for those two sexes to play. While I don't have a problem with women teaching, ministering, preaching, etc., I did have a problem with women pastoring churches, or serving as elders, or any other position with actual authority over spiritual matters, because as Paul said in
1Ti. 2:13, Adam was formed first, then Eve (and he said this in relation to women not usurping authority over men).
However, I've come to understand that the culture matters to God. It mattered when He told men not to have long hair. It mattered when He told women to keep long hair, and to pray with their head covered. It mattered when He condemned tattoos, and it mattered when He condemned same-sex sexual activity. So, I came to understand that God has always viewed male and female as equal. The Bible says that He created us BOTH in His image and after His likeness (
Gen. 1:27). So then, from the divine perspective, we are equal. The question becomes: Well, where did the inequality come in at? The answer is
culture. So long as the culture required the subservience of women, God went along with that, because ultimately, this was not to become a stumbling block that prevented people
within that culture from hearing and receiving the gospel. That's why He told them to be silent in the churches, even though privately they prophesied, taught, etc. There are examples of all of these occurrences in NT Scripture.
So then, culture matters. Within 2009 America, PRAISE GOD, women are no longer culturally considered inferior to men. So, they can
finally enjoy the equality that God created them for, and has always intended for them!
So no, I haven't the slightest problem with women pastoring churches or serving in any capacity whatsoever in the body of Christ.
I do want to underscore that although I do use the term "personally" from time to time, these are not just personal opinions. They are derived from the contemplative study of Scripture. Indeed, my own views have changed
because of what the Scriptures reveal in this regard. So, I don't want to express them as though they're my personal opinion. They are, but only because it's what God's holy word espouses.
God bless.